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CSS MPT Solved Paper · CSS 2027

CSS 2027 MPT Exam Paper Solved

By CSP Qasim Farooq

Morning Batch / Batch 1

CSS MPT 2027 showed a more analytical approach, with many questions testing understanding rather than memorization. This solved paper covers conceptual understanding, logical reasoning, English comprehension and the application of knowledge to everyday situations. For CSS MPT preparation, practise explaining why an answer is right, not just remembering facts.

Read all 200 MCQs with four options, FPSC key answers and brief explanations by CSP Qasim Farooq.

Download FPSC Answer Key — CSS MPT 2027, Batch 1 (PDF)

Islamic Studies · Q1–Q20

Q1In Islamic thought, the principal distinction between Deen and a narrowly understood concept of religion is that Deen ______:

  1. A.concerns morality but excludes collective affairs
  2. B.regulates worship while leaving conduct unrestricted
  3. C.operates only within specifically religious institutions
  4. D.provides guidance for individual and collective life together

FPSC key answer: D — provides guidance for individual and collective life together

Explanation

Deen guides worship, personal conduct and public life. Its scope therefore includes both the individual and society.

Q2The four fundamental sources of Islamic law are ______:

  1. A.Qur'an, history, philosophy, and logic
  2. B.Sunnah, custom, language, and history
  3. C.Ijma', Istishab, custom, and politics
  4. D.None of these

FPSC key answer: D — None of these

Explanation

The usual four sources are the Qur’an, Sunnah, Ijma and Qiyas. None of the first three options lists this combination.

Q3A Pakistani humanitarian organisation uses unrestricted non-Zakat relief funds to distribute emergency assistance overseas according to verified need, without differentiating recipients by ethnicity or religion. Which principle of Islamic global engagement is best reflected?

  1. A.Strategic solidarity should determine the priority of international aid
  2. B.Reciprocal benefit should determine the scope of humanitarian assistance
  3. C.Human welfare may be pursued through impartial need-based assistance
  4. D.Cultural affinity should determine the distribution of external relief

FPSC key answer: C — Human welfare may be pursued through impartial need-based assistance

Explanation

The funds are unrestricted and are not Zakat. Giving them according to need protects human welfare without making religion or ethnicity a condition for help.

Q4Hajj takes place from ______ of Zil-Hajj.

  1. A.8th to the 13th
  2. B.9th to the 12th
  3. C.8th to the 12th
  4. D.10th to the 13th

FPSC key answer: A — 8th to the 13th

Explanation

Hajj begins on 8 Zil-Hajj, while the days of stoning can continue through 13 Zil-Hajj. This gives the full period stated in option A.

Q5The basic unit of society in Islamic civilization is ______:

  1. A.Government
  2. B.Tribe
  3. C.Family
  4. D.None of these

FPSC key answer: C — Family

Explanation

The family provides care, upbringing and the first lessons in responsibility. These functions make it the basic social unit.

Q6Tolerance in Islamic civilization is best understood as:

  1. A.accepting every belief or practice as equally correct
  2. B.permitting peaceful coexistence while maintaining one's principles
  3. C.avoiding all discussion of moral and intellectual differences
  4. D.surrendering legal order whenever communities disagree

FPSC key answer: B — permitting peaceful coexistence while maintaining one's principles

Explanation

Tolerance allows people with different beliefs to live peacefully together. A person can respect others’ rights while keeping their own principles.

Q7The classical institution of Hisbah was most closely associated with:

  1. A.hereditary transfer of administrative offices between families
  2. B.supervision of military recruitment and territorial defence alone
  3. C.oversight of fair dealing and certain public-interest obligations
  4. D.collection of every category of state revenue from citizens

FPSC key answer: C — oversight of fair dealing and certain public-interest obligations

Explanation

Hisbah included supervision of markets and public conduct. It aimed to prevent dishonest dealing and protect the community’s interests.

Q8Accountability in Islamic governance most directly means that an office-holder:

  1. A.remains answerable only when financial loss has occurred
  2. B.becomes exempt from review after receiving lawful authority
  3. C.may judge personal performance solely by good intentions
  4. D.remains answerable for the manner in which authority is exercised

FPSC key answer: D — remains answerable for the manner in which authority is exercised

Explanation

Public office is a trust, so the holder must explain how they use their powers. Good intentions alone do not remove this responsibility.

Q9A society advances in technology and wealth, yet corruption and exploitation steadily increase. From an Islamic civilizational perspective, what deficiency is most evident?

  1. A.Weak institutional coordination accompanying economic expansion
  2. B.Weak moral formation accompanying material progress
  3. C.Weak cultural continuity accompanying technical innovation
  4. D.Weak civic participation accompanying demographic change

FPSC key answer: B — Weak moral formation accompanying material progress

Explanation

Technology and wealth cannot by themselves prevent wrongdoing. Rising corruption alongside material progress points to weak moral education and conduct.

Q10When a genuinely new issue requires an Islamic legal assessment, the soundest general procedure is to:

  1. A.adopt the most common social practice without examining its basis
  2. B.decide according to convenience and seek legal support afterwards
  3. C.avoid established sources because the issue itself is contemporary
  4. D.examine primary guidance and apply recognised juristic reasoning appropriately

FPSC key answer: D — examine primary guidance and apply recognised juristic reasoning appropriately

Explanation

A new problem is examined through established sources and recognised methods of reasoning. Its novelty does not justify ignoring basic guidance.

Q11The dynasty which founded Al-Azhar university was ______:

  1. A.Fatimid Dynasty
  2. B.Umayyad Dynasty
  3. C.Ottoman Dynasty
  4. D.Seljuk Dynasty

FPSC key answer: A — Fatimid Dynasty

Explanation

Al-Azhar was established under the Fatimid rulers of Egypt. It later became a major centre of Islamic learning.

Q12The Treaty of Hudaybiyyah is especially instructive for diplomats because it demonstrates that:

  1. A.every compromise necessarily weakens long-term strategic interests
  2. B.formal agreements are useful only when all gains are immediate
  3. C.strategic patience may secure larger benefits through peaceful engagement
  4. D.diplomatic success requires avoiding apparently unfavourable terms altogether

FPSC key answer: C — strategic patience may secure larger benefits through peaceful engagement

Explanation

The truce created room for peaceful contact and longer-term gains. It shows why diplomats may accept an immediate compromise for a larger benefit.

Q13Which qualification is most important for responsible Ijtihad?

  1. A.Popular support combined with extensive political experience
  2. B.Personal confidence combined with familiarity with current affairs
  3. C.sound knowledge of primary sources and juristic methodology
  4. D.Senior age combined with long participation in community affairs

FPSC key answer: C — sound knowledge of primary sources and juristic methodology

Explanation

Ijtihad requires the ability to understand the sources and apply sound legal reasoning. Popularity or confidence cannot replace this knowledge.

Q14Which proposition most clearly distinguishes the Islamic economic conception from both unrestricted capitalism and collectivist socialism?

  1. A.Private property is abolished in favour of public ownership
  2. B.Private property is recognized, but its exercise is subject to moral and legal obligations derived from Islam
  3. C.Market competition is prohibited because wealth is regarded as a public trust
  4. D.Economic equality is established through compulsory state redistribution of all surplus wealth

FPSC key answer: B — Private property is recognized, but its exercise is subject to moral and legal obligations derived from Islam

Explanation

Islam recognises private ownership while requiring lawful earning, fair dealing and social obligations. Ownership therefore carries responsibilities as well as rights.

Q15In ______, one partner provides the capital while the other provides management and labor. Profits are shared according to a pre-agreed ratio, but financial losses are borne entirely by the capital provider.

  1. A.Mudarabah
  2. B.Musharakah
  3. C.Qard al-Hasana
  4. D.None of these

FPSC key answer: A — Mudarabah

Explanation

In Mudarabah, one party invests capital and the other manages the business. Ordinary financial losses fall on the investor, while the manager loses their effort, unless misconduct or negligence changes liability.

Q16Wealth accumulation through lotteries or hyper-speculative markets without creating genuine economic value is called ______.

  1. A.Gharar
  2. B.Maysar
  3. C.Riba
  4. D.None of these

FPSC key answer: B — Maysar

Explanation

Maysar refers to gambling or games of chance. The gain depends on a wager rather than productive exchange; ordinary business risk is not automatically gambling.

Q17In his book “Islam at the Cross-roads”, the author Muhammad Asad argues that the principal danger posed by the uncritical adoption of Western civilization by Muslims is best understood as:

  1. A.The abandonment of traditional Islamic political institutions in favour of parliamentary government
  2. B.The substitution of Islamic intellectual traditions by Western scientific methodology
  3. C.The absorption of social and moral values whose underlying assumptions are incompatible with the Islamic conception of life
  4. D.The replacement of Arabic as the principal language of Muslim intellectual discourse

FPSC key answer: C — The absorption of social and moral values whose underlying assumptions are incompatible with the Islamic conception of life

Explanation

The concern is uncritical acceptance of the values beneath a civilisation’s practices. Borrowing useful knowledge is different from adopting its whole view of life.

Q18In “Reconstruction of Religious Thought in Islam”, Iqbal's idea of reconstruction is best characterized as:

  1. A.restoration of the medieval theological system through selective modernization
  2. B.abandonment of inherited Islamic thought in favour of contemporary Western philosophy
  3. C.critical re-examination of Islamic thought under modern intellectual conditions without severing it from revelation
  4. D.replacement of jurisprudence by philosophy as the principal source of Islamic guidance

FPSC key answer: C — critical re-examination of Islamic thought under modern intellectual conditions without severing it from revelation

Explanation

Iqbal sought fresh thinking about Islamic ideas in light of modern knowledge. Reconstruction keeps a connection with revelation while re-examining inherited interpretations.

Q19The rulings concerning financial and civil dealings between individuals are called ______:

  1. A.Family laws
  2. B.International laws
  3. C.Constitutional laws
  4. D.None of these

FPSC key answer: D — None of these

Explanation

These dealings fall under Muamalat, which includes transactions and civil relationships. That term is absent from options A–C.

Q20The principle of Shura is best applied in administration when a leader:

  1. A.consults only after making an irreversible final decision
  2. B.obtains relevant advice before deciding while retaining responsibility
  3. C.transfers all accountability to advisers who participate in consultation
  4. D.seeks opinions chiefly to confirm a preference already fixed

FPSC key answer: B — obtains relevant advice before deciding while retaining responsibility

Explanation

Shura means meaningful consultation before a decision. The leader seeks informed advice and still remains responsible for the result.

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Urdu · Q21–Q40

Q21پاکستان کی سپریم کورٹ نے 8 ستمبر 2015 کو اردو کو سرکاری زبان کے طور پر نافذ کرنے کا فیصلہ کیا۔ مندرجہ ذیل میں سے کون سا نکتہ فیصلے میں شامل ہے:

  1. A.وفاقی اور صوبائی حکومتوں کو تمام قوانین، نوٹیفیکیشنز اور دفتری خطوط کا اردو ترجمہ فوری فراہم کرنے کا حکم
  2. B.صدر اور وزیر اعظم کے لیے اردو میں تقریر لازم قرار دینا
  3. C.وفاقی پبلک سروس کمیشن کے امتحانات بشمول سی ایس ایس کو بتدریج اردو میں منتقل کرنا
  4. D.یہ تمام نکات

FPSC key answer: D — یہ تمام نکات

Explanation

اس سوال کا تعلق آئین کے آرٹیکل 251 کے تحت اردو کے سرکاری استعمال سے ہے۔ مقصد یہ ہے کہ عوام سرکاری زبان اور دستاویزات کو آسانی سے سمجھ سکیں۔

Q22لفظ اردو ______ زبان سے آیا ہے جس کے معنی ______ کے ہیں:

  1. A.فارسی، گری پڑی
  2. B.عربی، لشکر
  3. C.ترکی، عام بول چال
  4. D.ان میں سے کوئی نہیں

FPSC key answer: D — ان میں سے کوئی نہیں

Explanation

اردو ترکی زبان کا لفظ ہے اور اس کے معنی لشکر یا چھاؤنی کے ہیں۔ کسی بھی پہلے تین اختیارات میں زبان اور معنی کی یہ درست جوڑی موجود نہیں۔

Q23بازیچۂ اطفال ہے دنیا مرے آگے / ہوتا ہے شب و روز تماشا مرے آگے۔ ”بازیچۂ اطفال“ کے معنی ہیں:

  1. A.بچوں کا باغ
  2. B.بچوں کا کھیل
  3. C.کھیل کا میدان
  4. D.ان میں سے کوئی نہیں

FPSC key answer: B — بچوں کا کھیل

Explanation

بازیچہ کھیل کو اور اطفال بچوں کو کہتے ہیں۔ شاعر دنیا کی سرگرمیوں کو بچوں کے کھیل سے تشبیہ دے رہا ہے۔

Q24”تخلیقِ کائنات کا سب سے بڑا المیہ یہ ہے کہ انسان اپنی جبلت کا اسیر ہو کر ضمیر کی آواز کو پس پشت ڈال دیتا ہے۔“ ’جبلت‘ کے معنی بتائیے:

  1. A.عادت
  2. B.قسمت
  3. C.عقل
  4. D.فطرت

FPSC key answer: D — فطرت

Explanation

جبلت انسان کا پیدائشی یا فطری رجحان ہے۔ اس جملے میں یہ لفظ فطرت کے معنی میں آیا ہے۔

Q25اسلم نے میرے ساتھ ______ تک چلنے کی ______ بھری۔

  1. A.دوکان، حامی
  2. B.دکان، ہامی
  3. C.دوکان، ہامی
  4. D.دکان، حامی

FPSC key answer: B — دکان، ہامی

Explanation

درست املا دکان ہے۔ ہامی بھرنا ایک محاورہ ہے جس کا مطلب رضامندی ظاہر کرنا ہے۔

Q26درست جملے کا انتخاب کیجیے۔

  1. A.اس نے استفادہ حاصل کیا۔
  2. B.اس نے استفادہ کیا۔
  3. C.وہ حاصل استفادہ ہے۔
  4. D.وہ استفادے کے حصول میں ہے۔

FPSC key answer: B — اس نے استفادہ کیا۔

Explanation

استفادہ کا مطلب ہی فائدہ حاصل کرنا ہے۔ اس کے ساتھ حاصل کا لفظ لگانا غیر ضروری تکرار پیدا کرتا ہے۔

Q27لفظ ”متواتر“ کا درست متضاد منتخب کیجیے۔

  1. A.مسلسل
  2. B.مربوط
  3. C.منقطع
  4. D.متصل

FPSC key answer: C — منقطع

Explanation

متواتر کا مطلب لگاتار ہے، جبکہ منقطع کا مطلب ٹوٹا ہوا یا رکا ہوا ہے۔ اس لیے دونوں الفاظ ایک دوسرے کی ضد ہیں۔

Q28لفظ ”مستثنیٰ“ کا درست متضاد منتخب کیجیے۔

  1. A.مربوط
  2. B.موجود
  3. C.منسلک
  4. D.پابند

FPSC key answer: D — پابند

Explanation

مستثنیٰ وہ ہے جسے کسی شرط یا پابندی سے الگ رکھا جائے۔ پابند اس کے مقابل وہ شخص ہے جس پر شرط لاگو ہوتی ہے۔

Q29لفظ ”مستند“ کا مترادف منتخب کیجیے۔

  1. A.ثابت
  2. B.مبہم
  3. C.منسوخ
  4. D.مشروط

FPSC key answer: A — ثابت

Explanation

مستند بات دلیل یا معتبر حوالے سے ثابت ہوتی ہے۔ دیے گئے الفاظ میں ثابت اس معنی کے سب سے قریب ہے۔

Q30لفظ ”ہنوز“ کا درست معنی منتخب کیجیے۔

  1. A.ابھی تک
  2. B.جڑا ہوا
  3. C.خلاصہ
  4. D.ان میں سے کوئی نہیں

FPSC key answer: A — ابھی تک

Explanation

ہنوز کا استعمال ایسے کام یا حالت کے لیے ہوتا ہے جو ابھی تک جاری ہو۔ مثلاً ہنوز انتظار ہے یعنی ابھی تک انتظار ہے۔

Q31الفاظ کے جوڑے ”اَرض“ اور ”عَرض“ کا درست استعمال کس جملے میں ہوا ہے؟

  1. A.سروے ٹیم نے عرض کا نقشہ بنایا اور ندی کی ارض ناپی۔
  2. B.سروے ٹیم نے ارض کا نقشہ بنایا اور ندی کی ارض ناپی۔
  3. C.سروے ٹیم نے عرض کا نقشہ بنایا اور ندی کی عرض ناپی۔
  4. D.سروے ٹیم نے ارض کا نقشہ بنایا اور ندی کی عرض ناپی۔

FPSC key answer: D — سروے ٹیم نے ارض کا نقشہ بنایا اور ندی کی عرض ناپی۔

Explanation

ارض کے معنی زمین اور عرض کے معنی چوڑائی ہیں۔ اس لیے زمین کا نقشہ بنایا جاتا ہے اور ندی کی چوڑائی ناپی جاتی ہے۔

Q32محاورے ”جان بلب ہونا“ کا درست معنی کون سا ہے؟

  1. A.جان میں جان آنا
  2. B.صحت یاب ہونا
  3. C.قریب مرگ
  4. D.ان میں سے کوئی نہیں

FPSC key answer: C — قریب مرگ

Explanation

جان بلب ہونے کا مطلب موت کے قریب ہونا ہے۔ محاورے میں جان کے لبوں تک آ جانے کا تصور پایا جاتا ہے۔

Q33درست الفاظ معنی کا انتخاب کیجیے۔

  1. A.رسد: دوربین سے آسمان کا مشاہدہ کرنا
  2. B.رصد: اشیائے ضرورت کی دستیابی
  3. C.رسد: اشیائے ضرورت کی دستیابی
  4. D.ان میں سے کوئی نہیں

FPSC key answer: C — رسد: اشیائے ضرورت کی دستیابی

Explanation

رسد اشیائے ضرورت کی فراہمی کو کہتے ہیں۔ رصد مشاہدے، خاص طور پر اجرامِ فلکی کے مشاہدے، کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے۔

Q34درست جمع کا انتخاب کیجیے۔ حاشیہ:

  1. A.حاشیات
  2. B.حواشی
  3. C.حاشات
  4. D.ان میں سے کوئی نہیں

FPSC key answer: B — حواشی

Explanation

حاشیہ کی جمع حواشی ہے۔ یہ کتاب کے کنارے لکھی گئی اضافی باتوں یا تشریحات کے لیے بھی استعمال ہوتی ہے۔

Q35قلب:

  1. A.اقلوب
  2. B.قلوب
  3. C.قالب
  4. D.ان میں سے کوئی نہیں

FPSC key answer: B — قلوب

Explanation

قلب کا مطلب دل ہے اور اس کی جمع قلوب ہے۔ یہ عربی کی جمعِ مکسر کی صورت ہے۔

Q36درست مونث کا انتخاب کیجیے۔ مہتر:

  1. A.مہتری
  2. B.مہترائنی
  3. C.مہتران
  4. D.ان میں سے کوئی نہیں

FPSC key answer: D — ان میں سے کوئی نہیں

Explanation

مہتر کی معروف مونث مہترانی ہے۔ یہ املا پہلے تین اختیارات میں موجود نہیں، اس لیے جواب ان میں سے کوئی نہیں ہے۔

Q37کون سا جملہ ایسے عمل کو ظاہر کرتا ہے جو ماضی کے ایک دوسرے عمل سے پہلے مکمل ہو چکا تھا؟

  1. A.محرر اجلاس سے پہلے خلاصہ لکھتا تھا۔
  2. B.محرر اجلاس سے پہلے خلاصہ لکھ چکا ہے۔
  3. C.محرر اجلاس سے پہلے خلاصہ لکھ رہا تھا۔
  4. D.محرر اجلاس سے پہلے خلاصہ لکھ چکا تھا۔

FPSC key answer: D — محرر اجلاس سے پہلے خلاصہ لکھ چکا تھا۔

Explanation

لکھ چکا تھا بتاتا ہے کہ لکھنے کا کام ماضی میں اجلاس سے پہلے مکمل ہو گیا تھا۔ باقی جملے تکمیل کے اسی زمانی تعلق کو ظاہر نہیں کرتے۔

Q38جملہ ”محاسب نے تمام حسابات دوبارہ ڈال لیے“ میں ترکیبی فعل کے معاون جز ”لینا“ نے بنیادی طور پر کون سا مفہوم پیدا کیا ہے؟

  1. A.عمل کے اچانک شروع ہونے کا
  2. B.عمل کے مسلسل جاری رہنے کا
  3. C.عمل کے مکمل ہو جانے کا
  4. D.عمل کے کسی شرط سے وابستہ ہونے کا

FPSC key answer: C — عمل کے مکمل ہو جانے کا

Explanation

ڈال لیے میں لینا کام کے مکمل ہو جانے کا مفہوم پیدا کرتا ہے۔ محاسب نے حساب دوبارہ ڈالنے کا عمل ختم کر لیا ہے۔

Q39درج ذیل اردو جملے کا درست انگریزی ترجمہ منتخب کریں: ”ریکارڈ کی ڈیجیٹل نقل دستیاب ہونے کے باوجود، جانچ افسر نے اصل فائل دیکھے بغیر کوئی نتیجہ اخذ نہ کیا، کیونکہ معمولی اندراجی فرق بھی امیدوار کی اہلیت پر اثر ڈال سکتا تھا۔“

  1. A.Although a digital copy of the record was available, the scrutiny officer reached a conclusion without examining the original file, because even a minor entry discrepancy could not affect the candidate's eligibility.
  2. B.Despite the availability of the original record, the scrutiny officer postponed examining the digital file at that preliminary stage, because only a major entry discrepancy could have affected the candidate's eligibility.
  3. C.Although a digital copy of the record was available, the scrutiny officer drew no conclusion without checking the original file, because even a minor entry discrepancy could affect the candidate's eligibility.
  4. D.Although the digital copy of the record was unavailable, the scrutiny officer drew no conclusion after examining the original file, because every minor entry had already confirmed the candidate's eligibility under the applicable rules.

FPSC key answer: C — Although a digital copy of the record was available, the scrutiny officer drew no conclusion without checking the original file, because even a minor entry discrepancy could affect the candidate's eligibility.

Explanation

درست ترجمہ ڈیجیٹل نقل کی دستیابی کے باوجود اصل فائل دیکھنے کی شرط برقرار رکھتا ہے۔ اس میں معمولی فرق کے اہلیت پر ممکنہ اثر کا مفہوم بھی محفوظ ہے۔

Q40درج ذیل اردو جملے کا درست انگریزی ترجمہ منتخب کریں: ”صوبائی تربیتی ادارے نے ہدایت دی کہ ہر شعبہ اپنی سہ ماہی رپورٹ اس زبان میں مرتب کرے جو اعداد و شمار کی درست تشریح بھی کرے اور غیر ضروری دعووں سے بھی گریز کرے۔“

  1. A.The provincial training institute instructed each section to draft its annual report so that it briefly presents the data and includes only approved claims.
  2. B.The provincial training institute instructed each section to draft its quarterly report so that it both interprets the data accurately and avoids unnecessary claims.
  3. C.The provincial training institute asked each section to draft its quarterly report so that it merely reproduces the data and preserves all unnecessary claims.
  4. D.The provincial training institute instructed each section to revise its quarterly report after the data had been interpreted and all unnecessary claims had been retained.

FPSC key answer: B — The provincial training institute instructed each section to draft its quarterly report so that it both interprets the data accurately and avoids unnecessary claims.

Explanation

سہ ماہی کا مطلب تین ماہ کی مدت سے متعلق ہے۔ درست ترجمہ اعداد و شمار کی صحیح تشریح اور غیر ضروری دعووں سے گریز، دونوں باتیں بیان کرتا ہے۔

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English · Q41–Q90

Read the following passage carefully and answer Questions 41–45.

Measurements do not become neutral merely because they are numerical. Before a quantity can be counted, someone must decide what belongs in the category and where its boundaries lie. Such decisions may be reasonable, but they are not invisible. A stable index can illuminate change only when the meaning of its components remains sufficiently constant. If definitions shift while the figures are compared, apparent improvement may reflect reclassification rather than reality. Conversely, refusing all comparison because categories are imperfect would sacrifice useful knowledge. The prudent analyst therefore examines both the numbers and the conventions that made them possible.

Q41Which statement best expresses the passage's central claim?

  1. A.Numerical data are reliable only when all categories remain unchanged.
  2. B.Imperfect classifications make meaningful comparison fundamentally impossible.
  3. C.Quantitative comparisons require scrutiny of underlying categories.
  4. D.Stable figures can reveal change without reference to their definitions.

FPSC key answer: C — Quantitative comparisons require scrutiny of underlying categories.

Explanation

The passage says that numbers depend on decisions about categories. A sound comparison therefore checks those definitions as well as the figures.

Q42The statement that classificatory decisions “are not invisible” chiefly means that such decisions:

Read the passage for Q41–45
  1. A.shape the meaning of resulting measurements.
  2. B.must always be disclosed in the numerical tables.
  3. C.are necessarily biased by institutional preferences.
  4. D.can be eliminated through consistent data collection.

FPSC key answer: A — shape the meaning of resulting measurements.

Explanation

Choosing what to count changes what a measurement represents. The decisions matter even when they are not obvious in the final number.

Q43According to the passage, an apparent improvement may be misleading when:

Read the passage for Q41–45
  1. A.a numerical index contains too many separate components.
  2. B.the underlying phenomenon changes more slowly than expected.
  3. C.the analyst refuses to compare imperfect categories.
  4. D.definitions used across successive measurements have shifted.

FPSC key answer: D — definitions used across successive measurements have shifted.

Explanation

A changed definition can move cases between categories without any real improvement. Comparisons become misleading if this change is ignored.

Q44Which pair of positions does the author reject?

Read the passage for Q41–45
  1. A.Careful measurement and cautious interpretation
  2. B.Uncritical trust and wholesale scepticism
  3. C.Stable definitions and comparative analysis
  4. D.Numerical evidence and conceptual scrutiny

FPSC key answer: B — Uncritical trust and wholesale scepticism

Explanation

The writer rejects blind faith in numbers and the complete rejection of comparison. The recommended approach is careful, informed use of numerical evidence.

Q45Which procedure would most closely follow the author's recommendation?

Read the passage for Q41–45
  1. A.Discard every series whose categories contain borderline cases.
  2. B.Prefer numerical trends whenever the recorded totals are internally consistent.
  3. C.Verify category stability before interpreting numerical change.
  4. D.Replace contested classifications with the judgement of a single specialist.

FPSC key answer: C — Verify category stability before interpreting numerical change.

Explanation

Checking definitions helps establish whether figures from different periods measure the same thing. That is the careful comparison the passage recommends.

Fill in the Blanks.

Q46Were the distinction merely terminological, it ______ how the clause is read today.

  1. A.would not have affected
  2. B.would not affect
  3. C.will not have affected
  4. D.did not affect

FPSC key answer: B — would not affect

Explanation

“Were the distinction” means “If the distinction were” and introduces an unreal present condition. “Would not affect” correctly gives its hypothetical result.

Q47By the time the discrepancy was noticed, the relevant figures ______ into three subsequent tables.

  1. A.were being copied
  2. B.have been copied
  3. C.were already copied
  4. D.had been copied

FPSC key answer: D — had been copied

Explanation

The copying happened before another past event: noticing the discrepancy. The past perfect passive, “had been copied”, makes that order clear.

Q48The labels were photographed before removal lest their original sequence ______ impossible to reconstruct.

  1. A.become
  2. B.became
  3. C.would become
  4. D.had become

FPSC key answer: A — become

Explanation

After “lest”, the base form can express an outcome someone wants to prevent. “Become” fits this formal construction.

Q49What little correspondence survives from the expedition ______ that the route was abandoned abruptly.

  1. A.suggest
  2. B.have suggested
  3. C.suggests
  4. D.are suggesting

FPSC key answer: C — suggests

Explanation

“Correspondence” is an uncountable singular noun here. Its verb must therefore be “suggests”.

Q50The marginal signs are believed ______ after the volume was rebound.

  1. A.to have been adding
  2. B.to have been added
  3. C.to have added themselves
  4. D.to be having added

FPSC key answer: B — to have been added

Explanation

The signs received the action, so the passive is needed. “To have been added” also places that action before the present belief about it.

Choose the Grammatically Correct Sentence.

Q51Choose the grammatically correct sentence.

  1. A.Not only did the CEO suppress the internal audit report, but he also attempted to intimidate the whistleblower.
  2. B.Not only the CEO suppressed the internal audit report, but he also attempted to intimidate the whistle-blower.
  3. C.Not only did the CEO suppress the internal audit report, but also he attempted to intimidate the whistle-blower.
  4. D.Not only had the CEO suppressed the internal audit report, but he attempted to intimidate the whistle-blower also.

FPSC key answer: A — Not only did the CEO suppress the internal audit report, but he also attempted to intimidate the whistleblower.

Explanation

Starting with “Not only” requires inversion: “did the CEO suppress”. The second clause correctly continues with “but he also”.

Q52Choose the grammatically correct sentence.

  1. A.Having examined the classified documents, the tribunal's verdict was delivered without delay.
  2. B.Having examined the classified documents, it was decided by the magistrate to deliver the verdict without delay.
  3. C.Examining the classified documents, the verdict was delivered without delay by the magistrate.
  4. D.Having examined the classified documents, the magistrate delivered the verdict without delay.

FPSC key answer: D — Having examined the classified documents, the magistrate delivered the verdict without delay.

Explanation

The person who examined the documents must be the subject that follows the opening phrase. Only the magistrate can perform that action, so option D avoids a dangling modifier.

Q53Choose the grammatically correct sentence.

  1. A.The reason why the bilateral trade talk failed was because the delegation refused to compromise on tariffs.
  2. B.The reason why the bilateral trade talk failed was that the delegation refused to compromise on tariffs.
  3. C.The reason the bilateral trade talk failed was due to the delegation refusing to compromise on tariffs.
  4. D.The reason why the bilateral trade talk failed was owing to the delegation's refusal to compromise on tariffs.

FPSC key answer: B — The reason why the bilateral trade talk failed was that the delegation refused to compromise on tariffs.

Explanation

The standard construction is “The reason … was that …”. It introduces the cause without the redundant combination “the reason … because”.

Q54Choose the grammatically correct sentence.

  1. A.Hardly had the economic summit convened when news of the border skirmish broke out.
  2. B.Hardly had the economic summit convened than news of the border skirmish broke out.
  3. C.Hardly did the economic summit convene than news of the border skirmish broke out.
  4. D.Hardly the economic summit had convened when news of the border skirmish broke out.

FPSC key answer: A — Hardly had the economic summit convened when news of the border skirmish broke out.

Explanation

The paired construction is “Hardly had … when …”. It describes a second event following immediately after the first.

Q55Choose the grammatically correct sentence.

  1. A.The envoy, as well as his technical advisors, were detained at the border control checkpoint.
  2. B.The envoy, as well as his technical advisors, have been detained at the border control checkpoint.
  3. C.The envoy, as well as his technical advisors, was detained at the border control checkpoint.
  4. D.The envoy, as well as his technical advisors, are detained at the border control checkpoint.

FPSC key answer: C — The envoy, as well as his technical advisors, was detained at the border control checkpoint.

Explanation

The main subject is the singular “envoy”. “As well as his technical advisors” does not change the subject’s number, so “was” agrees with it.

Select the Sentence that contains a grammatical, syntactical or idiom usage error.

Q56Select the sentence that contains a grammatical, syntactical or idiom usage error.

  1. A.The quantum physicist explained that the particle's momentum could not be measured without altering its trajectory.
  2. B.Neither the principal investigator nor the data analysts were capable of explaining the statistical anomaly.
  3. C.The research team has published their findings regarding atmospheric microplastics in a peer-reviewed journal.
  4. D.Higher temperatures and increased humidity affect the rate at which enzymes catalyze cellular reactions.

FPSC key answer: C — The research team has published their findings regarding atmospheric microplastics in a peer-reviewed journal.

Explanation

The item treats “team” as one unit through “has”, so “its findings” keeps singular agreement. “Has published their findings” mixes that treatment with a plural pronoun.

Q57Select the sentence that contains a grammatical, syntactical or idiom usage error.

  1. A.The diplomat remarked that the treaty was superior than any bilateral agreement signed in the previous decade.
  2. B.Prior to the ratification of the charter, member states engaged in extensive multilateral consultations.
  3. C.She is senior to all other magistrates currently serving on the regional appellate bench.
  4. D.The economic policy proposed by the ministry is preferable to the alternative suggested by the opposition.

FPSC key answer: A — The diplomat remarked that the treaty was superior than any bilateral agreement signed in the previous decade.

Explanation

The adjective “superior” takes “to”, not “than”. The sentence should say “superior to any bilateral agreement”.

Q58Select the sentence that contains a grammatical, syntactical or idiom usage error.

  1. A.The regulatory body restrained the pharmaceutical firm from distributing the unapproved therapeutic compound.
  2. B.The border security force prevented the unauthorized vessel to enter sovereign territorial waters.
  3. C.High court judges prohibited the media from broadcasting prejudiced commentary during trial proceedings.
  4. D.Environmental activists refrained from protesting outside the embassy during high-level trade talks.

FPSC key answer: B — The border security force prevented the unauthorized vessel to enter sovereign territorial waters.

Explanation

The usual construction is “prevent someone from doing something”. The sentence should use “prevented the vessel from entering”.

Q59Select the sentence that contains a grammatical, syntactical or idiom usage error.

  1. A.Economists have been monitoring the fiscal volatility of emerging markets for more than three decades.
  2. B.The state bank has maintained a tight monetary policy since the global financial crisis began.
  3. C.Central banks are implementing aggressive quantitative easing measures since the past five fiscal quarters.
  4. D.The development agency has supported agricultural modernization projects in the region for a long time.

FPSC key answer: C — Central banks are implementing aggressive quantitative easing measures since the past five fiscal quarters.

Explanation

A duration takes “for”, and an action continuing from the past normally uses a perfect tense. The sentence should read “have been implementing … for the past five fiscal quarters”.

Q60Select the sentence that contains a grammatical, syntactical or idiom usage error.

  1. A.Three-fourths of the coastal infrastructure was destroyed by the catastrophic category-five hurricane.
  2. B.Ten million dollars was allocated by the cabinet for the urgent restoration of the historic heritage site.
  3. C.Two-thirds of the parliamentary committee members were present during the voting on the intelligence bill.
  4. D.A series of high-level diplomatic symposiums were organized to address cross-border water sharing.

FPSC key answer: D — A series of high-level diplomatic symposiums were organized to address cross-border water sharing.

Explanation

The head of the subject is singular: “a series”. The matching verb is “was organized”, even though the series contains several events.

Fill in the Blanks with correct Prepositions.

Q61The substitute chart was accepted ______ lieu of the damaged original and retained ______ future reference.

  1. A.by / as
  2. B.in / for
  3. C.at / to
  4. D.on / with

FPSC key answer: B — in / for

Explanation

“In lieu of” means instead of. “For future reference” explains why the replacement chart was retained.

Q62Her account is at variance ______ the earlier testimony but entirely consonant ______ the surviving notes.

  1. A.with / with
  2. B.against / to
  3. C.to / to
  4. D.from / by

FPSC key answer: A — with / with

Explanation

The established expressions are “at variance with” and “consonant with”. They mean in disagreement with and in agreement with respectively.

Q63The inscription was copied ______ hand and then checked ______ the surviving rubbing.

  1. A.with / from
  2. B.in / beside
  3. C.by / against
  4. D.from / to

FPSC key answer: C — by / against

Explanation

“By hand” describes the method of copying. Checking one record “against” another means comparing them for accuracy.

Q64The reader must distinguish an inference drawn ______ context from a meaning imposed ______ the text.

  1. A.through / against
  2. B.with / into
  3. C.from / upon
  4. D.by / over

FPSC key answer: C — from / upon

Explanation

An inference is drawn “from” evidence or context. A meaning forced onto a text is imposed “upon” it.

Q65The annotation is posterior ______ the watermark yet anterior ______ the rebinding.

  1. A.than / than
  2. B.to / than
  3. C.than / to
  4. D.to / to

FPSC key answer: D — to / to

Explanation

Both “posterior” and “anterior” take “to”. They describe something as later than or earlier than another event.

Antonyms:

Q66The surviving evidence was described as “Scanty”. Which word would reverse that meaning?

  1. A.fragmentary
  2. B.abundant
  3. C.equivocal
  4. D.derivative

FPSC key answer: B — abundant

Explanation

“Scanty” means small in amount or insufficient. “Abundant” reverses that meaning by indicating a plentiful supply.

Q67The envoy's response was “pusillanimous”. Which word gives the opposite sense?

  1. A.hesitant
  2. B.guarded
  3. C.evasive
  4. D.resolute

FPSC key answer: D — resolute

Explanation

“Pusillanimous” means timid or lacking courage. A resolute response shows firmness and determination.

Q68The proposal was “Nascent” rather than:

  1. A.loosely framed
  2. B.fully developed
  3. C.newly conceived
  4. D.partly tested

FPSC key answer: B — fully developed

Explanation

“Nascent” describes something just beginning to develop. Its opposite here is something fully developed.

Q69The commentary was “biased”, not:

  1. A.selective
  2. B.partisan
  3. C.impartial
  4. D.polemical

FPSC key answer: C — impartial

Explanation

A biased view favours one side unfairly. An impartial view considers the issue without such favouritism.

Synonyms:

Q70The reviewer called the tone “rebarbative”. Which word most nearly preserves that meaning?

  1. A.repellent
  2. B.conciliatory
  3. C.ornamental
  4. D.inaccessible

FPSC key answer: A — repellent

Explanation

“Rebarbative” describes something unpleasant or off-putting. “Repellent” is the closest match among the options.

Q71The argument was described as “cogent”. Which word most nearly matches its meaning?

  1. A.tentative
  2. B.compelling
  3. C.elaborate
  4. D.orthodox

FPSC key answer: B — compelling

Explanation

A cogent argument is clear, convincing and well supported. “Compelling” best preserves that sense.

Q72The inspection was merely “perfunctory”. Which word most nearly expresses the same criticism?

  1. A.cursory
  2. B.exhaustive
  3. C.methodical
  4. D.exacting

FPSC key answer: A — cursory

Explanation

A perfunctory inspection is carried out with little care or attention. “Cursory” similarly describes a quick, superficial check.

Q73The apparatus appeared “medieval” beside the modern instruments. Which word most nearly matches that description?

  1. A.antiquated
  2. B.provisional
  3. C.ceremonial
  4. D.anomalous

FPSC key answer: A — antiquated

Explanation

Here “medieval” is used figuratively to suggest that the apparatus is outdated. “Antiquated” expresses that comparison with modern equipment.

Grouping of Words:

Q74______ : Oar :: Bicycle : Pedal.

  1. A.sailor
  2. B.harbour
  3. C.boat
  4. D.river

FPSC key answer: C — boat

Explanation

An oar propels a boat, just as a pedal helps propel a bicycle. The relationship is between a vehicle and its means of propulsion.

Q75Scribe : Manuscript :: Potter : ______.

  1. A.library
  2. B.vessel
  3. C.ink
  4. D.needle

FPSC key answer: D — needle

Explanation

The relationship is between a maker and the object made: a scribe produces a manuscript, and a potter produces a vessel.

Q76Opaque : Transparency :: Brittle : ______.

  1. A.flexibility
  2. B.fragility
  3. C.density
  4. D.hardness

FPSC key answer: A — flexibility

Explanation

Something opaque lacks transparency. In the same way, something brittle lacks flexibility and breaks rather than bends.

Q77Index : Book :: Legend : ______.

  1. A.map
  2. B.lamp
  3. C.plot
  4. D.page

FPSC key answer: A — map

Explanation

An index helps a reader locate information in a book. A legend helps a reader interpret the symbols on a map.

Pairs of Words:

Q78The imagery was intended to ______ a vanished era, whereas the preface sought to ______ tradition as an authority.

  1. A.invoke / evoke
  2. B.suggest / summon
  3. C.elicit / cite
  4. D.evoke / invoke

FPSC key answer: D — evoke / invoke

Explanation

“Evoke” means bring an image or feeling to mind. “Invoke” means appeal to something, such as tradition, for support or authority.

Q79The interviewer tried to ______ a response without referring to the ______ recording.

  1. A.illicit / elicit
  2. B.allude / illegal
  3. C.elicit / illicit
  4. D.extract / elicited

FPSC key answer: C — elicit / illicit

Explanation

“Elicit” means draw out a response. “Illicit” describes something unlawful or not permitted.

Q80The account sounded ______; only a ______ reader, however, would accept it without corroboration.

  1. A.credible / credulous
  2. B.credulous / credible
  3. C.creditable / incredulous
  4. D.incredulous / creditable

FPSC key answer: A — credible / credulous

Explanation

A credible account is believable. A credulous reader is too ready to believe it without checking supporting evidence.

Q81A Manager with no personal stake is described as ______, whereas a spectator who does not care is described as ______.

  1. A.uninterested / disinterested
  2. B.disinterested / uninterested
  3. C.disinteresting / uninterested
  4. D.disinterested / disinteresting

FPSC key answer: B — disinterested / uninterested

Explanation

A disinterested manager has no personal stake and can judge fairly. An uninterested spectator simply lacks interest.

Idiomatic Phrases:

Q82To “beard the lion in his den” is to:

  1. A.provoke a rival through carefully indirect public criticism.
  2. B.confront a powerful opponent in their own stronghold.
  3. C.avoid direct confrontation until reliable support finally arrives.
  4. D.enter a dispute without first understanding its underlying cause.

FPSC key answer: B — confront a powerful opponent in their own stronghold.

Explanation

The image is of challenging a lion in its own home. It means confronting a strong opponent where that opponent has the advantage.

Q83To “strain at a gnat and swallow a camel” is to:

  1. A.object to a trifle while tolerating a grave fault.
  2. B.accept a minor fault while rejecting a far greater virtue.
  3. C.scrutinise minor details before considering the larger issue as a whole.
  4. D.exaggerate two separate faults until both seem equally serious.

FPSC key answer: A — object to a trifle while tolerating a grave fault.

Explanation

A gnat represents a tiny fault and a camel a much larger one. The saying criticises people who reject small faults while accepting serious wrongdoing.

Q84To “keep one's powder dry” is to:

  1. A.remain prepared for a future contingency.
  2. B.conceal one's intentions from every observer.
  3. C.withdraw from a conflict before it begins.
  4. D.avoid committing resources to any enterprise.

FPSC key answer: A — remain prepared for a future contingency.

Explanation

Gunpowder must stay dry to remain usable. The expression therefore means keeping yourself ready for a future need or danger.

Q85To “break a butterfly on a wheel” is to:

  1. A.destroy something delicate through entirely careless handling.
  2. B.punish an innocent person for another person's conduct.
  3. C.pursue beauty through needlessly elaborate and complex methods.
  4. D.use excessive force against a minor offence.

FPSC key answer: D — use excessive force against a minor offence.

Explanation

A wheel was an extreme instrument of punishment. Using it against a butterfly represents a response far greater than the offence deserves.

Translation from Urdu to English: Choose the most suitable option that justifies accuracy and purpose.

Q86”اگر مصنف نے اصطلاح کی تعریف ابتدا ہی میں کر دی ہوتی تو بعد کے ابواب میں پیدا ہونے والا ابہام بڑی حد تک ٹل سکتا تھا۔“

  1. A.If the author defined the term initially, most later ambiguity could thereby now have been avoided.
  2. B.Had the author defined the term initially, much of the later ambiguity could have been avoided.
  3. C.If the author had defined the term initially, the later chapters would have contained no ambiguity at all.
  4. D.Had the term been defined at the outset, all ambiguity in later chapters might entirely have disappeared.

FPSC key answer: B — Had the author defined the term initially, much of the later ambiguity could have been avoided.

Explanation

“Had the author defined” correctly expresses an unreal past condition. “Much of” also preserves the Urdu sentence’s limited claim rather than changing it to “all”.

Q87”محقق کا یہ دعویٰ نہیں تھا کہ نمونہ نمائندہ تھا؛ اس نے صرف یہ کہا کہ نتائج ایک بڑے سروے کی ضرورت کی طرف اشارہ کرتے ہیں۔“

  1. A.The researcher denied that the sample represented the population and therefore insisted that a larger survey had already become necessary.
  2. B.The researcher did not test whether the sample was representative; they stated instead that the findings themselves formed a broader survey.
  3. C.The researcher claimed that the sample was unrepresentative and that the findings therefore required immediate confirmation through a larger survey.
  4. D.The researcher made no claim that the sample was representative; they said only that the findings indicated a need for a larger survey.

FPSC key answer: D — The researcher made no claim that the sample was representative; they said only that the findings indicated a need for a larger survey.

Explanation

The researcher did not claim that the sample was representative. Option D keeps that distinction and says only that a larger survey was needed.

Q88”جو تبدیلی ابتدا میں معمولی سمجھی گئی، وہ اس وقت اہم ثابت ہوئی جب دونوں سلسلوں کا الگ الگ تجزیہ کیا گیا۔“

  1. A.The change first considered minor became important after the two series had been analysed together.
  2. B.What had seemed a minor change proved significant when the two series were analysed separately.
  3. C.The initially minor change was judged highly significant because both separate series were analysed independently.
  4. D.A change regarded as minor proved significant only after one series was separated from the other.

FPSC key answer: B — What had seemed a minor change proved significant when the two series were analysed separately.

Explanation

“Separately” preserves the key point that the two series were analysed independently. The sentence also keeps the contrast between an initially minor change and its later importance.

Q89”خواہ پیمائشیں ایک ہی آلے سے لی گئی ہوں، اگر حالات یکساں نہ ہوں تو ان کا براہ راست موازنہ گمراہ کن ہو سکتا ہے۔“

  1. A.Even when measurements use one instrument, direct comparison always remains valid unless conditions differ greatly.
  2. B.Although one instrument may record all the measurements, unequal conditions can make every comparison unreliable.
  3. C.Measurements taken with the same instrument can be compared directly, provided the conditions are recorded.
  4. D.Even if taken with the same instrument, measurements may mislead when compared under unequal conditions.

FPSC key answer: D — Even if taken with the same instrument, measurements may mislead when compared under unequal conditions.

Explanation

Using the same instrument does not guarantee comparable conditions. Option D preserves the possibility of misleading comparison without changing it into an absolute claim.

Q90”اس سے پہلے کہ معاہدے کی حتمی عبارت منظور کی جاتی، ماہرین نے ہر ایسی شق دوبارہ لکھی جس کے دو مختلف مفہوم نکل سکتے تھے۔“

  1. A.Before the final wording was approved, the experts rewrote every potentially ambiguous clause.
  2. B.Before approving the final agreement, every clause with two meanings had been rewritten by the experts.
  3. C.The experts revised each ambiguous clause after the final wording of the agreement had been approved.
  4. D.Prior to final approval, the experts rewrote those clauses whose meanings had already been interpreted differently.

FPSC key answer: A — Before the final wording was approved, the experts rewrote every potentially ambiguous clause.

Explanation

The rewriting happened before approval of the final wording. “Potentially ambiguous” accurately describes clauses that could have two meanings.

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General Ability · Q91–Q150

Q91A processing unit completes 18, 22, 20 and 16 cases in its first four hours. How many cases must it complete in the fifth hour for the five-hour average to be 20?

  1. A.21
  2. B.22
  3. C.23
  4. D.24

FPSC key answer: D — 24

Explanation

Five hours at an average of 20 require 5 × 20 = 100 cases. The first four hours total 76, leaving 100 − 76 = 24.

Q92An allocation for stationery and printing is divided in the ratio 3:5. If the printing share exceeds the stationery share by Rs 48,000, what is the total allocation?

  1. A.Rs 180,000
  2. B.Rs 192,000
  3. C.Rs 204,000
  4. D.Rs 216,000

FPSC key answer: B — Rs 192,000

Explanation

The difference is 5 − 3 = 2 parts, so one part is Rs 24,000. The total is 8 × 24,000 = Rs 192,000.

Q93Six clerks can process 720 applications in eight hours at a constant individual rate. At the same rate, how many applications can five clerks process in six hours?

  1. A.390
  2. B.420
  3. C.480
  4. D.450

FPSC key answer: D — 450

Explanation

Each clerk processes 720 ÷ (6 × 8) = 15 applications per hour. Five clerks working six hours process 5 × 6 × 15 = 450.

Q94An allowance is increased by 20% and then reduced by 10% of the increased amount. What is the overall change from the original allowance?

  1. A.6% increase
  2. B.8% increase
  3. C.10% increase
  4. D.12% increase

FPSC key answer: B — 8% increase

Explanation

Take the original amount as 100. It becomes 120, then 120 × 0.90 = 108, an overall increase of 8%.

Q95In a triangle, one angle is twice the smallest angle and the third angle is 30° greater than the smallest angle. What is the largest angle?

  1. A.67.5°
  2. B.70.0°
  3. C.72.5°
  4. D.75.0°

FPSC key answer: D — 75.0°

Explanation

Let the smallest angle be x. Then x + 2x + (x + 30) = 180, giving x = 37.5°; the largest angle is 2x = 75°.

Q96Among 120 candidates, 68 can use spreadsheet software, 52 can use presentation software, and 20 can use neither. How many can use both?

  1. A.20
  2. B.24
  3. C.28
  4. D.32

FPSC key answer: A — 20

Explanation

The number using at least one program is 120 − 20 = 100. The overlap is 68 + 52 − 100 = 20.

Q97For which value of x does 3(x − 4) + 2 = 2x + 9?

  1. A.17
  2. B.19
  3. C.21
  4. D.23

FPSC key answer: B — 19

Explanation

Expand and simplify: 3x − 12 + 2 = 2x + 9. Subtracting 2x and adding 10 gives x = 19.

Q98The mean of six observations is 42. Five observations are 35, 39, 41, 46 and 50. What is the sixth observation?

  1. A.39
  2. B.40
  3. C.42
  4. D.41

FPSC key answer: D — 41

Explanation

The total must be 6 × 42 = 252. The five known observations sum to 211, so the missing value is 252 − 211 = 41.

Q99A vehicle covers 162 kilometres in 2 hours 15 minutes at a constant speed. What is its speed in kilometres per hour?

  1. A.72
  2. B.68
  3. C.75
  4. D.81

FPSC key answer: A — 72

Explanation

Two hours 15 minutes is 2.25 hours. Speed = distance ÷ time = 162 ÷ 2.25 = 72 km/h.

Q100After a discount of 15%, an item costs Rs 3,400. What was its marked price?

  1. A.Rs 4,000
  2. B.Rs 4,100
  3. C.Rs 4,200
  4. D.Rs 4,250

FPSC key answer: A — Rs 4,000

Explanation

After the discount, 85% of the marked price remains. The marked price is 3,400 ÷ 0.85 = Rs 4,000.

Q101What is the lowest form of the ratio 24:36?

  1. A.2:3
  2. B.6:4
  3. C.3:4
  4. D.6:2

FPSC key answer: A — 2:3

Explanation

Divide both sides of 24:36 by their greatest common divisor, 12. The result is 2:3.

Q102If the sum of four consecutive numbers is 54, what is the smallest number?

  1. A.14
  2. B.13
  3. C.15
  4. D.12

FPSC key answer: C — 15

Explanation

Let the numbers be x, x + 1, x + 2 and x + 3. Then 4x + 6 = 54, so x = 12; the four numbers are 12, 13, 14 and 15.

Q103A number is doubled and then decreased by 6. The result is 24. What is the original number?

  1. A.10
  2. B.15
  3. C.12
  4. D.8

FPSC key answer: B — 15

Explanation

Let the original number be x. Solving 2x − 6 = 24 gives 2x = 30 and x = 15.

Q104The ages of two brothers are in the ratio 3:1. If the sum of their ages is 32, what is the age of the younger brother?

  1. A.16
  2. B.12
  3. C.8
  4. D.10

FPSC key answer: C — 8

Explanation

The four ratio parts total 32 years. The younger brother has one part, so his age is 32 ÷ 4 = 8 years.

Q105If the cost price of 15 items is equal to the selling price of 10 items, what is the profit or loss percentage?

  1. A.50% loss
  2. B.33.33% profit
  3. C.50% profit
  4. D.33.33% loss

FPSC key answer: C — 50% profit

Explanation

If one item costs c and sells for s, then 15c = 10s, so s = 1.5c. The profit is therefore 50% of cost.

Q106Let A be the set of positive multiples of 2 below 12, and B the set of positive factors of 12. How many elements are in A ∩ B?

  1. A.240
  2. B.275
  3. C.250
  4. D.320

FPSC key answer: A — 240

Explanation

A = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10} and B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12}. Their intersection is {2, 4, 6}, which contains 3 elements.

Q107In a random sample of 80 records, 12 are incomplete. Using the sample proportion, how many incomplete records would be expected among 600 similar records?

  1. A.90
  2. B.84
  3. C.96
  4. D.102

FPSC key answer: A — 90

Explanation

The sample proportion is 12 ÷ 80 = 0.15. Applying it to 600 records gives 600 × 0.15 = 90 expected incomplete records.

Q108If the cost price of an item is Rs. 1200 and sold at loss of 10%, what is the selling price?

  1. A.1000
  2. B.1100
  3. C.1080
  4. D.1180

FPSC key answer: C — 1080

Explanation

A 10% loss leaves 90% of the cost price. Selling price = 1,200 × 0.90 = Rs 1,080.

Q109If a fruit seller buys bananas at Rs. 100 per dozen and sells at Rs. 140 per dozen, he earns the profit at:

  1. A.30%
  2. B.35%
  3. C.38%
  4. D.40%

FPSC key answer: D — 40%

Explanation

Profit per dozen is 140 − 100 = Rs 40. Profit percentage = (40 ÷ 100) × 100 = 40%.

Q110The ratio of male and female students in a class is 27:23. If the difference between the number of male and female students is 200, then the number of female students is:

  1. A.1050
  2. B.1150
  3. C.1250
  4. D.1350

FPSC key answer: B — 1150

Explanation

The difference of 4 ratio parts equals 200 students, so one part is 50. The number of female students is 23 × 50 = 1,150.

Q111A parking lot contains 160 vehicles. Each vehicle is either a car or a truck and each vehicle is either red or green. 70 vehicles are red and 120 vehicles are cars. If there are 18 green trucks, how many red cars are there?

  1. A.54
  2. B.50
  3. C.48
  4. D.45

FPSC key answer: C — 48

Explanation

There are 160 − 120 = 40 trucks. Of these, 40 − 18 = 22 are red, leaving 70 − 22 = 48 red cars.

Q112A manager argues that appointment slots will reduce queue congestion because arrivals will be distributed across the day. Which assumption is required?

  1. A.Staffing levels remain exactly unchanged.
  2. B.Every listed service takes equal time.
  3. C.Applicants keep assigned slots.
  4. D.The premises have only one entrance.

FPSC key answer: C — Applicants keep assigned slots.

Explanation

The plan spreads arrivals only if applicants follow their assigned times. Without that behaviour, people could still arrive together and form a queue.

Q1131200 boys and 800 girls appeared in an examination. If 60% of the boys and 40% of the girls passed the examination, what is the percentage of candidates who failed in the examination?

  1. A.48%
  2. B.45%
  3. C.52%
  4. D.42%

FPSC key answer: A — 48%

Explanation

The number passing is 1,200 × 0.60 + 800 × 0.40 = 1,040. Of 2,000 candidates, 960 fail, giving 960 ÷ 2,000 × 100 = 48%.

Q114Applicants are shortlisted only if they score at least 70 and have two years of experience. An accredited certificate substitutes for one year of experience, but not for the score. A candidate scores 74, has one and a half years of experience, and holds the certificate. What is the correct decision?

  1. A.Shortlist the candidate.
  2. B.Reject for insufficient experience.
  3. C.Reject for an insufficient score.
  4. D.Shortlist only after another test.

FPSC key answer: A — Shortlist the candidate.

Explanation

The score of 74 meets the minimum of 70. The certificate adds one year to the 1.5 years of experience for this rule, taking the candidate above the two-year requirement.

Q115On a map, 1 inch represents 20 miles. The distance between two towns is 6 1/5 inches. How many miles are actually between the two towns?

  1. A.65 miles
  2. B.124 miles
  3. C.84 miles
  4. D.138 miles

FPSC key answer: B — 124 miles

Explanation

The map distance is 6.2 inches. Multiplying by the scale gives 6.2 × 20 = 124 miles.

Q116What is the integer n? Statement I: n is strictly between 20 and 30. Statement II: n leaves a remainder of 2 when divided by 7. Which option correctly describes the information?

  1. A.Only statement I is sufficient.
  2. B.Only the pair is sufficient.
  3. C.Only statement II is sufficient.
  4. D.Each statement is sufficient.

FPSC key answer: B — Only the pair is sufficient.

Explanation

The first statement allows several integers and the second allows many numbers of the form 7k + 2. Together they leave only 23 between 20 and 30.

Q117Find the missing number in the sequence 3, 7, 15, ______, 63, 127.

  1. A.19
  2. B.23
  3. C.25
  4. D.31

FPSC key answer: D — 31

Explanation

Each term is twice the previous term plus 1. Thus 15 × 2 + 1 = 31, followed by 63 and 127.

Q118Some trainers are assessors. All assessors are certified. No certified person is temporary. Which conclusion necessarily follows?

  1. A.Every trainer must be certified.
  2. B.Some temporary persons are assessors.
  3. C.No trainer can ever be temporary.
  4. D.Some trainers are not temporary.

FPSC key answer: D — Some trainers are not temporary.

Explanation

The trainers who are assessors must be certified. Since no certified person is temporary, at least those trainers are not temporary.

Q119The statement “The archive remains locked whenever the custodian is absent” is logically equivalent to which option?

  1. A.If the custodian is present, the archive remains locked.
  2. B.If the archive remains locked, the custodian is absent.
  3. C.If the archive is unlocked, the custodian is absent.
  4. D.If the archive is unlocked, the custodian is present.

FPSC key answer: D — If the archive is unlocked, the custodian is present.

Explanation

The contrapositive of “absent implies locked” is “unlocked implies present”. A statement and its contrapositive are logically equivalent.

Q120Six folders A, B, C, D, E and F are arranged in a row. A is before D, C is immediately after B, and F is before B. Which statement must be true?

  1. A.A must occur before B.
  2. B.D must occur after C.
  3. C.F occurs before C.
  4. D.E must occur after A.

FPSC key answer: C — F occurs before C.

Explanation

F is before B, and C is immediately after B. Therefore F must also be before C, whatever positions the other folders occupy.

Q121Sarah is twice as old as her youngest brother. If the difference between their ages is 15 years, how old is her youngest brother?

  1. A.10
  2. B.20
  3. C.25
  4. D.15

FPSC key answer: D — 15

Explanation

Let the brother’s age be x and Sarah’s age be 2x. Their difference is x = 15, so the brother is 15.

Q122Every record cleared by Unit X carries a digital signature. A particular record has no digital signature. Which conclusion is valid?

  1. A.It was not cleared by Unit X.
  2. B.It was rejected by every unit.
  3. C.It contains no verified content.
  4. D.It must carry a paper signature.

FPSC key answer: A — It was not cleared by Unit X.

Explanation

A digital signature is necessary for clearance by Unit X. Its absence therefore rules out clearance by that unit, but says nothing about other units.

Q123Exactly four students are to attend a workshop. They are to be chosen from a group of seven eligible students: three boys F, G, H and four girls J, K, M, and N. The four are to be chosen according to the following conditions: (i) If either G or H attends the workshop, then other must also attend. (ii) J and K cannot both attend the workshop. (iii) G and M cannot both attend the workshop. Which of the following could be the group attending the workshop?

  1. A.F, G, K, N
  2. B.G, J, M, N
  3. C.F, G, H, M
  4. D.F, K, M, N

FPSC key answer: D — F, K, M, N

Explanation

F, K, M and N contains four students and includes neither G nor H. It also avoids the forbidden pairs J with K and G with M.

Q124Two angles of a triangle measure 15° and 85°. What is the measure for the third angle?

  1. A.50
  2. B.60
  3. C.80
  4. D.90

FPSC key answer: C — 80

Explanation

The angles of a triangle sum to 180°. The third angle is 180 − 15 − 85 = 80°.

Q125Four friends A, B, C, D are residing in a same locality. The house of B is in the east of house of A but in the north of house of C. The house is in the west of house of D. The house of D is in which direction of house of A-

  1. A.South
  2. B.East
  3. C.South-East
  4. D.North-East

FPSC key answer: C — South-East

Explanation

If the house west of D is C, then C lies south of B and D lies east of C. On that reading, D is south-east of A.

Q126Beginning with 5, a sequence is formed by repeatedly applying these operations in order: add 4, multiply by 2, and subtract 3. What is the seventh displayed number when the starting number is counted as the first?

  1. A.32
  2. B.35
  3. C.38
  4. D.41

FPSC key answer: B — 35

Explanation

Apply the operations in order: 5, 9, 18, 15, 19, 38, 35. Counting the starting 5 as term 1 makes 35 the seventh term.

Q127A person faces north, turns 90° right, then 135° left, and finally 45° right. Which direction is the person facing?

  1. A.N
  2. B.E
  3. C.S
  4. D.W

FPSC key answer: A — N

Explanation

From north, a 90° right turn points east. Turning 135° left points north-west, and another 45° right returns to north.

Q128A mark is initially placed in the upper-right corner of a transparent square. The square is rotated 90° anticlockwise, reflected across its vertical centre-line, and then rotated 180°. Where is the mark finally located?

  1. A.Lower-left corner
  2. B.Upper-left corner
  3. C.Upper-right corner
  4. D.Lower-right corner

FPSC key answer: A — Lower-left corner

Explanation

The first rotation moves the mark to the upper-left corner. Reflection moves it to the upper-right, and a 180° rotation moves it to the lower-left.

Q129A student was solving a question of Mathematics. While he was doing calculations he multiplied a number by 3/2 instead of 2/3. The percentage error in the calculation is:

  1. A.1.25%
  2. B.40.5%
  3. C.71.73%
  4. D.None of these

FPSC key answer: D — None of these

Explanation

For a nonzero starting number, the wrong result is (3/2) ÷ (2/3) = 9/4 of the correct result. The percentage error is (9/4 − 1) × 100 = 125%, which is not among A–C.

Q130If x + 1/x = 5, what is the value of x² + 1/x²?

  1. A.23
  2. B.21
  3. C.25
  4. D.27

FPSC key answer: A — 23

Explanation

Squaring gives (x + 1/x)² = x² + 2 + 1/x² = 25. Subtracting 2 leaves 23.

Q131Two discounts of 15% and 30% are equal to a single discount of:

  1. A.45%
  2. B.25.5%
  3. C.40.5%
  4. D.59.5%

FPSC key answer: C — 40.5%

Explanation

The price remaining is 0.85 × 0.70 = 0.595 of the original. The single equivalent discount is 1 − 0.595 = 40.5%.

Q132A class has four sections and the number of students in each section is 50, 40, 30 and 20. The pass percentage of these sections is 20%, 15%, 30%, and 50% respectively. The failure percentage of the entire class is:

  1. A.75%
  2. B.25%
  3. C.33%
  4. D.20%

FPSC key answer: A — 75%

Explanation

The numbers passing are 10, 6, 9 and 10, totalling 35 out of 140. That leaves 105 failures, or 105 ÷ 140 × 100 = 75%.

Q133In the Mathematics department of a certain university, the student teacher ratio was 20:1. It was decided to increase the number of students and teachers by 50% and 10% respectively. The new student to teacher ratio is:

  1. A.300:11
  2. B.30:1
  3. C.25:1
  4. D.50:3

FPSC key answer: A — 300:11

Explanation

Start with 20 students for each teacher. The new ratio is (20 × 1.50):(1 × 1.10) = 30:1.1 = 300:11.

Q134The wheel of a car is of diameter 70 cm. The number of revolutions per minute must the wheel make so as to keep a speed of 66 km/hour will be:

  1. A.500
  2. B.300
  3. C.200
  4. D.100

FPSC key answer: A — 500

Explanation

Using π = 22/7, the wheel’s circumference is 220 cm, or 2.2 m. The speed is 66,000 ÷ 60 = 1,100 m per minute, requiring 1,100 ÷ 2.2 = 500 revolutions.

Q135The pair of numbers that does not belong to the group for lack of common property:

  1. A.27, 36
  2. B.29, 82
  3. C.14, 23
  4. D.18, 45

FPSC key answer: B — 29, 82

Explanation

In the other pairs, the two numbers have equal digit sums: 9 and 9, 5 and 5, or 9 and 9. For 29 and 82, the sums are 11 and 10.

Q136Choose which pair of numbers come next in the sequence 16, 26, 56, 36, 46, 68, 56, ______.

  1. A.80, 66
  2. B.64, 82
  3. C.66, 80
  4. D.78, 68

FPSC key answer: C — 66, 80

Explanation

Group the sequence into triples: (16, 26, 56), (36, 46, 68), (56, 66, 80). Across the groups, the first two positions rise by 20 and the third rises by 12.

Q137If the arithmetic mean of 7, 5, 13, x and 9 is 10, the value of x is:

  1. A.5
  2. B.10
  3. C.14
  4. D.16

FPSC key answer: D — 16

Explanation

Five numbers with a mean of 10 must sum to 50. The known numbers sum to 34, so x = 50 − 34 = 16.

Q138Pointing to a gentleman, Dayyan said “His only brother is the father of my daughter's father.” How is the gentleman related to Dayyan?

  1. A.Uncle
  2. B.Grandfather
  3. C.Father
  4. D.Brother in law

FPSC key answer: A — Uncle

Explanation

“My daughter’s father” refers to Dayyan. The gentleman’s brother is therefore Dayyan’s father, making the gentleman Dayyan’s uncle.

Q139A bus for Multan leaves every thirty minutes from a bus stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the bus had already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will leave at 10:45 AM. At what time did the enquiry clerk give this information to the passenger?

  1. A.10:30 AM
  2. B.10:15 AM
  3. C.10:20 AM
  4. D.10:25 AM

FPSC key answer: D — 10:25 AM

Explanation

The bus before the 10:45 service left at 10:15. Ten minutes after that departure is 10:25 AM.

Q140A teacher told his class that teacher's evaluation by students is not a valid measure of teaching quality. For this evaluation, students should fill out questionnaires at the end of the course. Which of the following, if true, supports suggestion of the teacher?

  1. A.The teacher received low ratings from his students
  2. B.Teachers are not interested in any survey
  3. C.Students opinions against teachers are filtered during course
  4. D.Students show interest in teacher's evaluation

FPSC key answer: C — Students opinions against teachers are filtered during course

Explanation

If students’ opinions are filtered during the course, those responses may not reflect their full views. This supports seeking their feedback at the end of the course.

Q141Five cartoon videos P, Q, R, S and T are to be played to kids in a sequence meeting the condition given below: (i) P must be played earlier than R. (ii) Q must be played earlier than S. (iii) T must be the fifth video played. If Q, S and T are played one after another in sequence, when can P be played in the remaining two positions?

  1. A.Second
  2. B.First
  3. C.Fourth
  4. D.Third

FPSC key answer: B — First

Explanation

With T fifth, the consecutive block Q, S, T must occupy positions 3, 4 and 5. P and R take positions 1 and 2, and P must come first.

Q142In a race, Pervaiz is ahead of Ghazi but behind Omar. Omar and Yasir are running side by side. Pervaiz is behind Bilal. Who is at the second place in the race?

  1. A.Pervaiz
  2. B.Ghazi
  3. C.Omar
  4. D.None of these

FPSC key answer: D — None of these

Explanation

The information does not fix Bilal’s position relative to Omar and Yasir. A unique runner in second place therefore cannot be identified from the stated order.

Q143If the price of sharpeners reduces by 20%, a girl can purchase 3 more sharpeners in a dollar. The number of sharpeners that can be purchased in five dollars is:

  1. A.6
  2. B.10
  3. C.30
  4. D.None of these

FPSC key answer: D — None of these

Explanation

A 20% price cut raises quantity per dollar by 25%. If the extra quantity is 3, the original was 12 and the new quantity is 15 per dollar, or 75 for five dollars.

Q144The radius of a circle is increased by 1%. If the original value of radius is 10, the percentage increase in the area of circle is:

  1. A.0.5%
  2. B.1.15%
  3. C.3.07%
  4. D.2.01%

FPSC key answer: D — 2.01%

Explanation

Area is proportional to the square of the radius. Increasing radius by 1% multiplies area by 1.01² = 1.0201, an increase of 2.01%.

Q145Q is twice as old as P but twice younger than T. R is half the age of P but is twice older than S. Who is the second oldest?

  1. A.T
  2. B.Q
  3. C.Q
  4. D.P

FPSC key answer: B — Q

Explanation

Using the intended age ratios gives T > Q > P > R > S. Q is therefore the second oldest.

Q146The pair of numbers that does not belong to the group for lack of common property:

  1. A.56, 63
  2. B.86, 99
  3. C.96, 108
  4. D.16, 18

FPSC key answer: B — 86, 99

Explanation

The other pairs simplify to 8:9. The pair 86:99 does not share that ratio.

Q147Odd one out.

  1. A.Cylinder
  2. B.Sphere
  3. C.Circle
  4. D.Cone

FPSC key answer: C — Circle

Explanation

A circle is a two-dimensional shape. A cylinder, sphere and cone are three-dimensional solids.

Q148In a certain language, the word SISTER is coded as 535301, the word UNCLE is coded as 84670 and the word BOY as 129, then the word SON is coded as:

  1. A.923
  2. B.872
  3. C.524
  4. D.342

FPSC key answer: C — 524

Explanation

Read each letter’s digit from the examples: S = 5, O = 2 and N = 4. Therefore SON becomes 524.

Q149What number should fill the blank in the following sequence 1/9, 1/3, 1, ..., 9?

  1. A.2/3
  2. B.3
  3. C.6
  4. D.27

FPSC key answer: B — 3

Explanation

Each term is multiplied by 3. After 1 comes 3, and after 3 comes 9.

Q150The next term in the sequence FAG, GAF, HAI, IAH, is:

  1. A.HAK
  2. B.HAL
  3. C.JAK
  4. D.JAI

FPSC key answer: C — JAK

Explanation

The outside letters alternate between forward and reversed pairs: FG, GF, HI, IH. The next forward pair is JK, with A kept in the middle, giving JAK.

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Everyday Science · Q151–Q166

Q151Pluto is no longer considered a full planet because:

  1. A.It is not heavy enough to clear other space rocks out of its path.
  2. B.It no more orbits the Sun
  3. C.It is not round
  4. D.All of these

FPSC key answer: A — It is not heavy enough to clear other space rocks out of its path.

Explanation

A planet must have cleared its orbital neighbourhood. Pluto shares its region with many other objects and is classified as a dwarf planet.

Q152Australia has summer in December because:

  1. A.it sits in the Southern Hemisphere which leans towards the sun in December.
  2. B.it sits in the Northern Hemisphere which leans towards the sun in December
  3. C.it sits in the Southern Hemisphere which leans away from the sun in December.
  4. D.None of these

FPSC key answer: A — it sits in the Southern Hemisphere which leans towards the sun in December.

Explanation

In December the Southern Hemisphere is tilted towards the Sun. Australia receives more direct sunlight and longer days, producing summer conditions.

Q153The lightning conductor or rod used for protecting buildings from lightning is made of:

  1. A.Aluminum
  2. B.Copper
  3. C.Iron
  4. D.All of the above

FPSC key answer: B — Copper

Explanation

Copper conducts electricity well and can carry lightning current through a designed path to earth. This is why it is commonly used in lightning protection.

Q154The primary difference between a virus and a bacteria is that:

  1. A.Viruses are free-living, single-celled organisms, while bacteria are non-living collections of genetic code.
  2. B.Bacteria are free-living, single-celled organisms, while viruses are non-living collections of genetic code.
  3. C.Bacteria require a host to survive and reproduce, Viruses split and multiply on surfaces or in soil.
  4. D.Both (A) and (C)

FPSC key answer: B — Bacteria are free-living, single-celled organisms, while viruses are non-living collections of genetic code.

Explanation

Bacteria are cells that can reproduce by cell division, while viruses depend on host cells to make copies. That dependence is the key distinction tested here.

Q155Pick the incorrect statement:

  1. A.An endemic is a constant, predictable presence in a specific area;
  2. B.an epidemic is a sudden, unexpected spike in cases within a region;
  3. C.a pandemic is a global epidemic crossing multiple countries and continents.
  4. D.a pandemic is a global endemic crossing multiple countries and continents.

FPSC key answer: D — a pandemic is a global endemic crossing multiple countries and continents.

Explanation

A pandemic is an epidemic with very wide international spread. Calling it a “global endemic” confuses widespread outbreaks with the usual presence of a disease.

Q156Which of the following is the best and most effective way to prevent Hepatitis A?

  1. A.Taking antibiotics daily
  2. B.Drinking cold milk
  3. C.Wearing a face mask
  4. D.Getting the Hepatitis A vaccination and washing hands

FPSC key answer: D — Getting the Hepatitis A vaccination and washing hands

Explanation

Vaccination builds protection against hepatitis A. Handwashing also reduces the faecal–oral spread of the virus through contaminated hands, food or water.

Q157What is the basic output of GIS or spatial data analysis system?

  1. A.Numbers
  2. B.Software
  3. C.Map
  4. D.Locations

FPSC key answer: C — Map

Explanation

GIS links information to places and commonly presents the results on a map. This lets users see spatial patterns and relationships.

Q158Which of the following is NOT a type of air pollutant?

  1. A.Chromium
  2. B.Carbon dioxide
  3. C.Nitrogen
  4. D.Hydrocarbons

FPSC key answer: C — Nitrogen

Explanation

Ordinary nitrogen gas makes up most of the atmosphere and is not normally classed as an air pollutant. Nitrogen oxides are different substances and can pollute the air.

Q159Several tube wells in a district contain excessive arsenic, while nearby tested wells are within the safe limit. Which immediate risk-reduction measure is most defensible?

  1. A.Mark tested sources and shift households to low-arsenic water
  2. B.Boil all groundwater for longer periods before household consumption
  3. C.Add chlorine uniformly without first measuring the arsenic concentration
  4. D.Mix every tested source regardless of its arsenic level

FPSC key answer: A — Mark tested sources and shift households to low-arsenic water

Explanation

Testing identifies which water sources have lower arsenic levels. Switching to those sources reduces exposure; boiling does not remove dissolved arsenic.

Q160A proposed municipal landfill overlies a permeable aquifer and will receive biodegradable waste. Which engineering package best controls both groundwater and climate risks?

  1. A.Open dumping, periodic burning and surface-water diversion
  2. B.Unlined burial, stormwater injection and passive smoke vents
  3. C.Composite liner, leachate collection and methane capture
  4. D.Daily flooding, deep compaction and unrestricted gas release

FPSC key answer: C — Composite liner, leachate collection and methane capture

Explanation

The liner and leachate collection reduce the escape of polluted liquid into groundwater. Methane capture also limits the release of a powerful greenhouse gas.

Q161A cereal-and-pulse meal supplies non-haem iron, but the household habitually drinks tea with food. Which modification would most improve iron absorption without changing the staple meal?

  1. A.Add bran and serve strong tea with the meal
  2. B.Add guava and postpone tea until later
  3. C.Add calcium tablets and remove all legumes
  4. D.Add butter and replace pulses with polished rice

FPSC key answer: B — Add guava and postpone tea until later

Explanation

Guava supplies vitamin C, which helps the body absorb non-haem iron. Taking tea later reduces the effect of its iron-absorption inhibitors during the meal.

Q162______ are the primary energy providers in human body.

  1. A.Proteins
  2. B.Carbohydrates
  3. C.Fats
  4. D.None of these

FPSC key answer: B — Carbohydrates

Explanation

Carbohydrates are broken down into sugars such as glucose. Glucose provides readily usable energy for cells.

Q163Bitcoin deploys ______ technology.

  1. A.Blockchain
  2. B.DAG
  3. C.Hashgraph
  4. D.None of these

FPSC key answer: A — Blockchain

Explanation

Bitcoin records transactions in blocks linked by cryptographic hashes. This chain of blocks forms its distributed transaction ledger.

Q164What is the function of an HDMI cable?

  1. A.To transmit internet signals
  2. B.To connect storage devices
  3. C.To provide power to the monitor
  4. D.To connect audio and video devices

FPSC key answer: D — To connect audio and video devices

Explanation

HDMI carries digital video and audio between compatible devices. It can connect a computer or player to a television or monitor.

Q165What does SaaS stand for in cloud computing?

  1. A.Software as a Service
  2. B.System as a solution
  3. C.Storage and Access Service
  4. D.Security as a system

FPSC key answer: A — Software as a Service

Explanation

SaaS delivers software over a network as a service. Users access the application while the provider manages its hosting and maintenance.

Q166In AI, LLM stands for:

  1. A.Learning Large Model
  2. B.Large Language Model
  3. C.Language Learning Model
  4. D.Local Language Model

FPSC key answer: B — Large Language Model

Explanation

A Large Language Model is trained on large amounts of text to learn language patterns. It uses those patterns to generate and process text.

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Current Affairs · Q167–Q183

Q167According to the Defence Forces of Pakistan Act, 2026, who hold the ultimate authority to appoint the Chief of Defence Forces (CDF)?

  1. A.The Prime Minister of Pakistan
  2. B.The President of Pakistan, on the advice of the Prime Minister
  3. C.Federal Cabinet
  4. D.National Assembly

FPSC key answer: B — The President of Pakistan, on the advice of the Prime Minister

Explanation

The appointment combines two roles: the Prime Minister gives advice and the President makes the formal appointment. Option B includes both parts of that process.

Q168At its meeting on 27th July 2026, the State Bank of Pakistan kept the policy rate unchanged at 11.5 per cent. Given that the full effects of policy-rate changes in Pakistan typically materialise over 18–24 months, which inference is most defensible?

  1. A.A policy-rate decision must change consumer prices within one week
  2. B.A policy-rate decision determines the national fiscal deficit immediately
  3. C.A policy-rate decision can affect inflation with substantial lags
  4. D.A policy-rate decision eliminates every domestic supply-side price shock

FPSC key answer: C — A policy-rate decision can affect inflation with substantial lags

Explanation

Interest-rate changes affect borrowing, spending and prices over time. A delayed effect on inflation is therefore consistent with the lag described in the question.

Q169The trading route connecting Pakistan's Kurram district with Afghanistan's Khost area is called:

  1. A.Lapis Lazuli Corridor
  2. B.Kharlachi Route
  3. C.Khyber Corridor
  4. D.Hormuz-Makran Coastal Link

FPSC key answer: B — Kharlachi Route

Explanation

Kharlachi is a border crossing linking the Kurram area with Afghanistan’s Khost region. It serves trade across that part of the border.

Q170Pakistan fully supports the One-China principle and:

  1. A.Views Beijing as the sole legitimate Government representing all of China
  2. B.Treats the Taiwan issue as an internal affair of China
  3. C.Official diplomatic or political ties with Taiwan do not exist
  4. D.All of these

FPSC key answer: D — All of these

Explanation

The One-China position recognises the government in Beijing and treats Taiwan as part of China. The listed positions are consistent with that policy.

Q171The Indian and Pakistani governments hold full membership of an intergovernmental setup known as:

  1. A.ASEAN
  2. B.SCO
  3. C.BRICS
  4. D.BIMSTEC

FPSC key answer: B — SCO

Explanation

India and Pakistan became full members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation in 2017. SCO is therefore the shared organisation among these options.

Q172On 17th August 2026, Pakistan assumed the presidency of which multilateral forum in Geneva?

  1. A.International Labour Conference
  2. B.UN Human Rights Council
  3. C.Conference on Disarmament
  4. D.World Trade Organization General Council

FPSC key answer: C — Conference on Disarmament

Explanation

Pakistan assumed the Conference on Disarmament presidency on 17 August 2026. This Geneva-based forum negotiates arms-control and disarmament matters.

Q173Which bilateral agreement between India and Pakistan requires both nuclear rivals to exchange the list of their nuclear installations annually?

  1. A.Lahore Memorandum of Understanding
  2. B.Creation of Hotlines between DGMO
  3. C.Pre-Notification of Ballistic Missile Flight Tests
  4. D.Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack Against Nuclear Installations and Facilities

FPSC key answer: D — Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack Against Nuclear Installations and Facilities

Explanation

The agreement seeks to protect listed nuclear installations from attack. Annual exchanges help each side identify the facilities covered by it.

Q174During the Prime Minister's 6–8 August 2026 visit to Saudi Arabia, which objective was explicitly highlighted?

  1. A.Bilateral ties and regional coordination
  2. B.A shared land-border management regime
  3. C.A common bilateral currency mechanism
  4. D.A Pakistan-Saudi customs union

FPSC key answer: A — Bilateral ties and regional coordination

Explanation

The visit’s announced agenda covered stronger bilateral relations and discussion of regional and international developments. That matches cooperation and regional coordination.

Q175The Kyoto Protocol's architecture was based most strongly on the idea that:

  1. A.All states should immediately adopt identical emission targets
  2. B.Developed countries should take the lead in reducing greenhouse-gas emissions
  3. C.Developing countries should bear the greatest historical responsibility
  4. D.Climate policy should be entirely voluntary

FPSC key answer: B — Developed countries should take the lead in reducing greenhouse-gas emissions

Explanation

The Kyoto framework placed binding emissions commitments on developed countries. It reflected their greater historical contribution to greenhouse-gas emissions.

Q176Which one is an important global initiative under the Paris Agreement on climate change that emphasises the attainment of long-term goals?

  1. A.Fridays for Future
  2. B.Earth Hour
  3. C.Nationally Determined Contributions
  4. D.RE100

FPSC key answer: C — Nationally Determined Contributions

Explanation

Nationally Determined Contributions are countries’ climate-action plans under the Paris Agreement. Together, these plans support its long-term climate goals.

Q177Which strategic sector has become a bone of contention in the ongoing global trade competition among great powers?

  1. A.Textile Production
  2. B.Vaccine Production
  3. C.Artificial Intelligence Technology
  4. D.Semiconductors

FPSC key answer: D — Semiconductors

Explanation

Semiconductors are essential to computing, communications and advanced defence systems. Control of chip technology and supply chains therefore carries major strategic importance.

Q178Afghanistan formally joined the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) and became its 8th member in:

  1. A.2012
  2. B.2007
  3. C.1995
  4. D.2018

FPSC key answer: B — 2007

Explanation

Afghanistan joined at the 2007 SAARC summit in New Delhi. Its admission increased the membership from seven countries to eight.

Q179In August 2026, Pakistan welcomed progress under which mechanism for implementing the Gaza Peace Plan?

  1. A.UN Trusteeship Council
  2. B.Arab League Secretariat
  3. C.Gulf Cooperation Council
  4. D.Board of Peace

FPSC key answer: D — Board of Peace

Explanation

Pakistan’s August 2026 statement welcomed progress under the Board of Peace towards implementing the Gaza Peace Plan. The mechanism is distinct from the other regional and UN bodies listed.

Q180Pakistan's stated 2026 position supports a Palestinian state based on which territorial reference?

  1. A.The 1994 Oslo administrative zones
  2. B.The 1949 armistice lines only
  3. C.The pre-1967 borders
  4. D.The 1947 partition lines

FPSC key answer: C — The pre-1967 borders

Explanation

Pakistan’s stated position uses the pre-June 1967 borders as the basis for a Palestinian state. This is the territorial reference in option C.

Q181Iran's location is strategically significant because it sits near:

  1. A.The Strait of Hormuz and the Persian Gulf
  2. B.The Strait of Hormuz and the Arabian Sea
  3. C.The Strait of Hormuz and the Mediterranean
  4. D.None of these

FPSC key answer: A — The Strait of Hormuz and the Persian Gulf

Explanation

Iran borders the Persian Gulf and lies beside the Strait of Hormuz. The strait’s role in maritime energy transport gives this location strategic importance.

Q182Russia's acquisition of territory to its west historically served what major strategic purpose?

  1. A.To shorten the distance between Moscow and the Atlantic
  2. B.To create greater strategic depth between the Russian heartland and potential European invaders
  3. C.To gain direct control over the Mediterranean
  4. D.To eliminate Russia's dependence on Siberian resources

FPSC key answer: B — To create greater strategic depth between the Russian heartland and potential European invaders

Explanation

Territory between the Russian heartland and a potential invading force increases the distance that force must cross. This is the idea of strategic depth.

Q183The region that is going to witness the fastest population growth rate is:

  1. A.South Asia
  2. B.East Asia
  3. C.Sub-Saharan Africa
  4. D.Latin America

FPSC key answer: C — Sub-Saharan Africa

Explanation

Sub-Saharan Africa has a young population and, in many countries, relatively high fertility. These factors support faster population growth than in the other regions listed.

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Pakistan Affairs · Q184–Q200

Q184The constitutional significance of the Government of India Act 1935 after independence was that it:

  1. A.Became Pakistan's permanent constitution
  2. B.Served as the interim constitutional framework
  3. C.Introduced the 1973 parliamentary system
  4. D.None of the above

FPSC key answer: B — Served as the interim constitutional framework

Explanation

Pakistan used an adapted form of the 1935 Act while preparing its own constitution. It was an interim framework rather than the permanent constitution.

Q185The 3rd June Plan differed from the Cabinet Mission fundamentally because the former:

  1. A.Preserved Indian Unity through a weak centre
  2. B.Accepted partition as a basis for constitutional settlement
  3. C.Abolished provincial legislature
  4. D.None of these

FPSC key answer: B — Accepted partition as a basis for constitutional settlement

Explanation

The Cabinet Mission sought a constitutional arrangement within a united India. The 3 June 1947 Plan accepted partition and the creation of separate states.

Q186Which sequence is chronologically correct?

  1. A.Cabinet Mission → Simla Conference → Wavell Plan → Direct Action
  2. B.Wavell Plan → Simla Conference → Cabinet Mission → Direct Action
  3. C.Simla Conference → Cabinet Mission → Wavell Plan → Direct Action
  4. D.Wavell Plan → Cabinet Mission → Simla Conference → Direct Action

FPSC key answer: B — Wavell Plan → Simla Conference → Cabinet Mission → Direct Action

Explanation

The Wavell Plan came before the Simla Conference in 1945. The Cabinet Mission followed in 1946, before Direct Action in August that year.

Q187A Pakistani city faces recurrent heatwaves intensified by the urban heat-island effect. Which package is most likely to reduce both exposure and ambient heat?

  1. A.Dark roofs, wider asphalt surfaces and unrestricted afternoon labour
  2. B.More air-conditioners without grid planning or outdoor heat mitigation
  3. C.Reflective roofs, shade, vegetation, warnings and adjusted work hours
  4. D.None of these

FPSC key answer: C — Reflective roofs, shade, vegetation, warnings and adjusted work hours

Explanation

Reflective roofs, shade and vegetation reduce absorbed heat and cool outdoor areas. Warnings and adjusted work hours also reduce people’s exposure during dangerous periods.

Q188The Makran Subduction Zone lies along Pakistan's?

  1. A.Northern Mountains
  2. B.Indus Plain
  3. C.Arabian Sea Coast
  4. D.None of these

FPSC key answer: C — Arabian Sea Coast

Explanation

The Makran Subduction Zone lies offshore along the Arabian Sea coast. It is associated with the Arabian Plate moving beneath the plate to its north.

Q189A mountain district contains rapidly enlarging glacial lakes above populated valleys. Which package best reduces glacial-lake-outburst-flood risk before the next melt season?

  1. A.Depend on post-event relief while avoiding evacuation drills
  2. B.Deepen channels, delay warnings and expand valley construction
  3. C.Relocate sensors downstream and remove community communication links
  4. D.Monitor lakes, warn communities, map routes and control exposure

FPSC key answer: D — Monitor lakes, warn communities, map routes and control exposure

Explanation

Monitoring and warnings help detect danger early, while mapped routes support timely evacuation. Controlling development in exposed areas also reduces potential losses.

Q190The internationally known Truck Art of Pakistan symbolises the country's folk creativity while having international recognition from:

  1. A.United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
  2. B.International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property
  3. C.International Federation of Arts Councils Culture Agencies
  4. D.International Council of Museums

FPSC key answer: A — United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization

Explanation

UNESCO has used Pakistani truck art in campaigns promoting girls’ education. This shows international engagement with the art form and its ability to communicate through local culture.

Q191The official headquarters of SAARC (SAARC Secretariat) is located in:

  1. A.New Delhi, India
  2. B.Colombo, Sri Lanka
  3. C.Dhaka, Bangladesh
  4. D.None of these

FPSC key answer: D — None of these

Explanation

The SAARC Secretariat is in Kathmandu, Nepal. Since Kathmandu is not listed in A–C, the answer is “None of these”.

Q192Which regulatory authority oversees the safety, security and operational control of Pakistan's nuclear assets?

  1. A.KRL
  2. B.MTCR
  3. C.PNRA
  4. D.None of these

FPSC key answer: C — PNRA

Explanation

PNRA licenses and regulates nuclear and radiation facilities and enforces safety requirements. Its regulatory work includes physical protection and radiation safety.

Q193Pakistan raises substantial revenue through consumption taxes while many higher-income activities remain lightly documented. Which reform would improve both equity and durability?

  1. A.Increase cascading indirect taxes while narrowing income documentation
  2. B.Exempt additional high-value sectors from audit and disclosure
  3. C.Broaden direct taxation and reduce unjustified exemptions
  4. D.Finance routine expenditure through repeated central-bank borrowing

FPSC key answer: C — Broaden direct taxation and reduce unjustified exemptions

Explanation

A broader direct-tax base brings more income and high-value activity into the system. Reducing unjustified exemptions can spread the burden more fairly and strengthen lasting revenue.

Q194Under the Constitution of 1973, the budgetary powers rest with?

  1. A.The National Assembly
  2. B.The Senate
  3. C.The Executive
  4. D.None of the above

FPSC key answer: A — The National Assembly

Explanation

The National Assembly votes on demands for grants and has the decisive role in money bills. These powers give it control over approval of the budget.

Q19513th Amendment of the Constitution:

  1. A.Reversed Article 58(2)b
  2. B.Introduced article 58(2)b
  3. C.Formed Special courts for speedy trials
  4. D.None of these

FPSC key answer: A — Reversed Article 58(2)b

Explanation

The Thirteenth Amendment removed the President’s discretionary power under Article 58(2)(b) to dissolve the National Assembly. “Reversed” refers to that removal.

Q196In June 2026, what taxes did the federal government decide to impose on the residents of the merged tribal districts and Malakand division including Swat?

  1. A.Property and inheritance taxes
  2. B.Income, sales and custom taxes
  3. C.Corporate and digital
  4. D.None of the above

FPSC key answer: B — Income, sales and custom taxes

Explanation

Income tax applies to taxable income, sales tax to taxable supplies, and customs duties to imports. Option B groups these three forms of federal taxation.

Q197How do frequent power blackout and energy shortage affect Pakistan's industrial sector?

  1. A.Reduce output
  2. B.Higher costs
  3. C.Both (A) and (B)
  4. D.None of these

FPSC key answer: C — Both (A) and (B)

Explanation

Outages interrupt production and reduce output. Backup power and idle machinery also raise the cost of producing each unit.

Q198Which structural flaw in Pakistan's power sector heavily drain public finance and causes severe energy crises?

  1. A.Low demand from industrial sectors
  2. B.Surplus generation of renewable energy
  3. C.Circular debt and reliance on imported fuel
  4. D.All of these

FPSC key answer: C — Circular debt and reliance on imported fuel

Explanation

Circular debt leaves unpaid obligations moving through the electricity supply chain. Dependence on imported fuel adds exposure to world prices and foreign-exchange pressure.

Q199______ of the UNSC recommends a free and impartial plebiscite in Jammu & Kashmir.

  1. A.Resolution 38 (1948)
  2. B.Resolution 47 (1948)
  3. C.Resolution 39 (1948)
  4. D.None of these

FPSC key answer: B — Resolution 47 (1948)

Explanation

Resolution 47 of 1948 set out steps towards a free and impartial plebiscite, subject to conditions including demilitarisation. It is the resolution identified in option B.

Q200Pakistan faces simultaneous concerns involving Afghan-origin militancy, formal trade, border management and refugee returns. Which policy framework is most coherent?

  1. A.Combine secure borders, lawful trade, counter-terrorism and orderly return of refugees
  2. B.Treat refugee management, trade and security as unrelated portfolios
  3. C.Base policy solely on short-term political changes in Kabul
  4. D.All of these

FPSC key answer: A — Combine secure borders, lawful trade, counter-terrorism and orderly return of refugees

Explanation

Border security, militancy, trade and refugee returns affect one another. A coordinated approach can address security concerns while preserving lawful trade and orderly procedures.

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